brave Posted April 27, 2005 Share Posted April 27, 2005 I know Euro 2008 is quite far off, and I'm not sure how many of you are following the dispute for the English 4th place Champions League between Liverpool + Everton. Basically, if Everton come 4th and Liverpool win the Champions League, the F.A. will have to decide who takes part in the Champions League next year. The Premier League have so far voiced their support for Everton, but if the F.A. decides overwise, Liverpool will take part despite the fact they have not legitmately qualified. Then it occured to me, if this applies to Liverpool, then why can it not apply to Greece? I know there are slight differences e.g. club/international teams, but it ultimately comes down to the principle of the holders being able to defend their crown. If it's awarded to Liverpool, then this may mean Greece need not to go through the qualifcation stages for Euro 2008. What do you guys think? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Panathinaikos_Trifilli Posted April 27, 2005 Share Posted April 27, 2005 If liverpool win the CL and Everton finish fourth, Uefa will officially ask Liverpool to attend the CL next year in place of Everton, which will break all hell loose in England. As for Greece, unfortunately im 99% sure that they will have to qualify like everyone else, other than the hosts. Even though Brazil beat Germany in the 2002 final, Brazil have to qualify and Germany automatically qualify as Hosts. France qualified for Euro 2004 aswell, so, even though i haven't really looked it up, cos i cant be bothered, im pretty sure greece have to qualify. Sorry Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HOLLYWOOD Posted April 28, 2005 Share Posted April 28, 2005 very intresting..... i think holders of any title should qualify automaticaly..... it will b stupid if we cant see the past champs defend their title... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
brave Posted April 28, 2005 Author Share Posted April 28, 2005 Even though Brazil beat Germany in the 2002 final, Brazil have to qualify and Germany automatically qualify as Hosts. France qualified for Euro 2004 aswell What if they hadnt qualified. but then complained + were subsequently awarded a place at the expense of one of the teams who qualified via the playoff? As they had already qualified, there was no need to create a fuss. You cant say that it wont apply to Greece simply because France + Brazil both had to qualify. Football develops and if theres a new precedent, it will have to apply in all areas. Porto last year won the Champions League but still legitmately qualified via their position in the Portugese Championship, and Milan before that and so on. Whereas this case would be the first instance where a team would not have qualified yet still awarded a place and the only reason for this would have been as defending champions. If Liverpool are awarded a place, then as I said before it would set a precedent, and this precedent would have to be followed across the whole of football, otherwise it would create double-standards, which would be grossly unfair and lead to questions of integrity. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ziaka Posted April 28, 2005 Share Posted April 28, 2005 It is set in stone. Greece has to go through qualifying stages for Euro 2004. France as 2000 EURO champion had to do the same for EURO 2004. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Panathinaikos_Trifilli Posted April 28, 2005 Share Posted April 28, 2005 What if they hadnt qualified. but then complained + were subsequently awarded a place at the expense of one of the teams who qualified via the playoff? As they had already qualified, there was no need to create a fuss. You cant say that it wont apply to Greece simply because France + Brazil both had to qualify. Football develops and if theres a new precedent, it will have to apply in all areas. Porto last year won the Champions League but still legitmately qualified via their position in the Portugese Championship, and Milan before that and so on. Whereas this case would be the first instance where a team would not have qualified yet still awarded a place and the only reason for this would have been as defending champions. If Liverpool are awarded a place, then as I said before it would set a precedent, and this precedent would have to be followed across the whole of football, otherwise it would create double-standards, which would be grossly unfair and lead to questions of integrity. This rule that the champions must also qualify only came about i think at the 2002 world cup. So this is were football develops.The difference between Club comps and country comps is that a club works all year long for different competitions. Country however only plays for major championships, and if this is the case, then they should have to qualify, because a major championship is 2 years long, not one month. Its better anyway, a team is not ready when it only plays friendlies. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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